OLD-WORDS-L Archives

From: "MICHAEL. CHAPPELL" <>
Subject: Re: [OLDWORDS] "mort" 1600 Wales
Date: Wed, 19 Apr 2000 18:23:55 +0100

Dear Bob,

A quickie having tried to simplify it in my own mind. There are pages and
pages about this but here go's.

I think its an early evasion of dues. ( A tax evasion!) I think it will
might go a bit like this:

If a man freely held land within a lords Feudal domain but had to give dues
in say services to him in return for the original grant and possibly only
was due whilst he held the land ( being Feudal). If he then made a gift of
the land in trust to a monastery but tied it to a further gift they could
then give it back to him as a their tenant in trust or to another. As they
were then holding it in trust in perpetuity the lord lost all his dues. And
land held by the monastery was surely not held feudally so attacking that
would be attacking the Crown! That would threaten the taking away of his
own lands.

I think it makes sense?

Yours,
Mikey.

-----Original Message-----
From: Robert Bowen <>
To: <>
Date: 19 April 2000 15:08
Subject: [OLDWORDS] "mort" 1600 Wales


Does the word "mort" have any English meaning other than "dead". In a
handwritten 1601 Welsh manuscript documenting family pedigrees, the word
"mort" appears next to the names of two individuals in a list of 17
siblings. This suggests that the individuals were dead at the time of
writing, possibly dying in infancy. Based on many other documents however,
these two individuals were born in the 1580's but one emmigrated to America
in 1640 and lived for many years after that. There is evidence that the
other married in 1603, after the manuscript with the word "mort" was
written. Did the word "mort" have any other meanings in Wales around 1600,
such as "disowned" or "illegitimate" or "leasing property"?

Bob Bowen
Institutional Research
475-2841

This thread:

• Re: [OLDWORDS] "mort" 1600 Wales by "MICHAEL. CHAPPELL" <>