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Archiver > GENEALOGY-DNA > 2005-08 > 1122910652
From: "Ken Nordtvedt" <>
Subject: Re: [DNA] P40 for I1a4
Date: Mon, 1 Aug 2005 09:37:32 -0600
References: <20040101194047.87435.qmail@web41209.mail.yahoo.com> <014301c59631$e2969350$71509045@Ken1> <000c01c596ab$6f3e8730$6400a8c0@Skip>
William, You lucked out in spite of the confusion at TRace Genetics. P40+
indicates I1a1, so that's what you are. Trace thought that P40 was only for
I1a and P30 was for I1a1, but it was actually the other way around (unless
the whole industry is still confused?).
It will be interesting some day to find some P30+ who are negative for P40.
So far such haplotypes have not been reported, but less than 10 haplotypes
have been tested for P40 so far as I know.
I doubt you are I1a4. Only 10 percent or so of the I1a in Eastern Europe
shows I1a4. I1a4 could be erroneously named. It could be a subclade of
I1a1 and would need to be called I1a1a. We shall find out with a P40 test
for my M227+ sample. But the converse will not generally be true; most I1a1
will not be positive for M227.
Ken
----- Original Message -----
From: "William Curry" <>
To: <>
Sent: Monday, August 01, 2005 9:12 AM
Subject: Re: [DNA] P40 for I1a4
> I am P40+ and Trace Genetic only assigned me to I1a. I have 49
markers.
> As I understood it, Trace had made a mistake and I was actually I1a1. Am I
> now being considered I1a4?
> William
>
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