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From: Diana Trenchard <>
Subject: Legitimizing
Date: Tue, 2 Dec 1997 18:03:02 +0000


The following extract is from a reply by Todd A. Farmerie" <> on Mon, 01 Dec 1997 19:27:58 re: Moslem Ancestors

" Alfonso married both the french christian Isabella, having his daughters, but following her death married Zaida/Isabella, in part to legitimize her son Sancho. "

What is the status of a child thus legitimized? Were they the heir of the father in exactly the same way as a legitimately-born one?

Were they legitimized from the date of their illegitimate birth or the date of the parents' subsequent marriage?

If the father had a legitimate son by his wife in the period between the illegitimate birth and the legitimizing, who had precedence - the older legitimized son or the younger legitimately-born son?

Did a marriage automatically legitimize a child even when the father was married to someone else at the time of the child's birth?

Was this legitimizing by the State and/or by the Church?

Did this apply in all countries?

Does it still apply?

Are there any complications of legitimization in a pedigree?

Diana

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